This site provides information regarding scriptural support for Christianity and will keep you and your children out of the professing Christian Jewish Cults, like David Koresh, Armstrongism and the Seventh Day Adventist
Historical Data - Scriptural Insight And
Published on December 8, 2004 By Sabbatismus In Religion
Jeremiah the fourth chapter tells us how the earth was plunged back into darkness and being void and without form again after the sin of Adam and Eve. Jer.4: 22 For my people [the Jews to whom he gave the Sabbath] is foolish, they have not known me; they are sottish children, and they have none understanding: they are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge. 23 I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light. This the prophet Jeremiah reveals that the world has returned to place where it was at the beginning in Genesis 1 : 1In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. 2And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep.

The Apostle John writes from the vantage point of having seen the "Light of the World" (John 8:12) arrived on the earth in the form of a human, yet both God and man. In the Genesis of the New Creation in Christ, John begins his Gospel.

The Gospel of John and the Genesis 1 Birth of Light

The gospel of John chapter 1 was written intentionally as a new creation narrative like that of Genesis 1. Like Genesis 1, it begins with the first day of the week being as a day of the beginning of light. The dividing of light from the darkness. 1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2The same was in the beginning with God. 3All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. 4In him was life; and the life was the light of men. 5And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. 6There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. 7The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe. 8He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light. 9That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world. 10He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. 11He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

The first day of creation in Genesis, is the first day of the week, what we call "Sunday". Moses in Genesis one and John in John Chapter 1 both use the bringing forth of Light into the world as the beginning of creation. The Holy Spirit has stirred up the mind of the Apostle John to see consider, the relationship with the bringing forth of light of the sun to provide light for the world, and the Sun of righteousness (Mal.4:2) who would bring forth Light unto men.

John's gospel first reminds us that "All things were made by him (Christ, the Word) and without him was not anything that was made" . These words are of particular significance. It is Christ who made the sun. It is Christ who made the first day of the week and He made it a day of light. In these words we find the refutation of any argument that says the first day of the week is of Pagan origin or that Christ cannot be born on a December 25th. Because, Christ is the Creator of all things 7 days a week 365 days a year, they all belong to Him, the Creator.

As the first day of the week in Genesis, is represented as in darkness and the bringing forth of light of the sun arrives on that day, so Christ saw fit, to be born on the day when all the world knew as the birth of the sun and light, by the Creator. John then directly ties the birth of the sons of God with those who received Christ in this Genesis account of John 1. "12But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: 13Which were BORN, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." The very first "receiving of Him" in scripture is at Christ's birth by the Shepherds and the Magi.

It is in John's gospel in the Genesis narrative, we find the scripture that some go a muck with. "14And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, ) full of grace and truth" Because of a hypersensitive wall against Paganism has been built in the same fashion the Pharisees built the hyper-sensitive wall around the law of the Sabbath, some Christians are unable to see the scripture in the frame work and context to see the significance of the 1st day of the week and the bringing forth of the Sun of Righteousness in New Testament scripture.

Yes, John uses the word of God "dwelling among us" in a tabernacling manner. In the context here, it is not Christ's birth that John speaks of but Christ being the "only begotten" . When Christ is first conceived in Mary's womb, he began tabernacling in the flesh. The Israelites began tabernacling not at the Feast of Tabernacles but at Passover. If one were wishing to make a comparison of Christ's Tabernacling beginnings he would be on much safer ground, to say Christ was conceived at Passover, when He first began to tabernacle in the womb of Mary, as Israel began to tabernacle in the Wilderness during these days.. We find in Luke 1:43 that already months before Christ's birth, Elizabeth sees Mary with Christ in her womb and cried out, " Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb. 43And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? For the Lord was already tabernacling among men. How incredibly significant is it that Exodus 12 commands 1And the LORD spake unto Moses and Aaron in the land of Egypt, saying, 2This month shall be unto you the beginning of months: it shall be the first month of the year to you. " and that Christ would likely been conceived at the beginning of the "first month" and year of his tabernacling among men in the womb of Mary, in the Egypt of sin and darkness of the world.

While this is an ever fair and accurate analogy, it presents a problem for the Christ was born during the feast crowd. Because, if Christ truly did begin "dwelling among us" in the womb of Mary at about the same time the Israelites began tabernacle-ing, then Christ would have been born in December, a month with which they want nothing to do.

This major problem for those who see paganism at every corner, because then Christ would be born on or near the day of the Birth of the Sun in the sky, when both pagans and Jews looked forward to the days of light. Nevertheless, John 1:14 is given in the context of the creation account of God birth of light upon the first day of the week. And the tabernacling of Christ in the flesh, is directly linked not to the feast of Tabernacles but the day of the Sun giving birth both to Light in the NEW creation, and the sons of God, who receive the Light in the Genesis narrative of John 1.

More, enlightening is that probablity that God would take the darkest day of the year as the day to bring LIGHT into the world, when man is spiritually represented as being in darkness, void of true knowledge and righteousness. The first day of creation in the Old Testament , Genesis 1 began with the bringing forth of Light, the New Creation in the New Testament begins the bringing forth of Light, Christ. The whole reason, we have the tracking of years B.C .& A.D., is because the day and year Christ is born a new creation began. It all started with The Sun of Righteousness being born into the world of Darkness and sin. The days of darkness were now ending as in the Genesis 1 account. Now, the Light of the World (Jn.8:12) was brought forth into world to restore what had been lost in sin. To underscore this, Luke 2 records that Christ was born in darkness. And it is highly likely Christ was born on the darkest day of the year to underscore, the darkness of sin into which the world had fallen. Even more, the Light of the world was brought forth at this time that there would be no mistake, "3All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made." And this is the very issue, the Sabbatarians refuse to see or even to honor God and credit Christ. They take away the Honor and Glory due to the Creator and give it to the Pagans saying that they own the days and God has nothing to do with either December 25th or the first day of the week, both which are Christ's own creation!

How prophetic are the words and the teaching of the prophet Isaiah concerning the birth of Christ in Chapter 60. " 1Arise, shine; for thy LIGHT is come, and the glory of the LORD is risen upon thee. 2For, behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, and gross darkness the people: but the LORD shall arise upon thee, and his glory shall be seen upon thee. 3And the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising. 4Lift up thine eyes round about, and see: all they gather themselves together, they come to thee: thy sons shall come from far, and thy daughters shall be nursed at thy side. 5Then thou shalt see, and flow together, and thine heart shall fear, and be enlarged; because the abundance of the sea shall be converted unto thee, the forces of the Gentiles shall come unto thee. 6The multitude of camels shall cover thee, the dromedaries of Midian and Ephah; all they from Sheba shall come: they shall bring gold and incense; and they shall shew forth the praises of the LORD. " We see that Mt.2:11 records the wise men, the Kings of the Gentiles, "they presented unto him (Christ) gifts; gold, and frankincense, and myrrh" at his birth! What great prophetic vision of birth of Christ when "darkness covered the earth and gross darkness the people". But notice how the birth is proclaimed! It is said to be "the brightness of thy rising"! The Sun of Righteousness, Christ is described as an "arising" and the "brightness of light" AT HIS BIRTH!


There is historical proof as well as scriptural proof.

A noted advocate of the December 25th date was John Chrysostom (c. 347-407), a humble and caring man, perhaps best known for his writings on the Bible and the Christian faith. He was also an eloquent preacher in the city of Constantinople, where his sermons became a stronger attraction for people than the shows of the amphitheater. Through his ministry many souls came to Christ-from among heretics, pagans, and Jews.

He was not without his enemies, however, and suffered times of persecution, including his church being burned down. illtimately the Emperor Arcadius ordered his banishment to an inhospitable region, the desert of Pityos. But while being taken there, Chrysostom died in his 60th year. It is reported that with his last words he was praising the Lord!
Chrysostom claimed the December 25th date was supported by the actual census/tax records of the Holy Family when they registered in Bethlehem. We have no way to prove if those records were still in existence, or were authentic, but Chrysostom was not the only one who referred to them.
Justin Martyr (100-165), in his noted Apology-a detailed explanation of the Christian faith addressed to the Emperor Marcus Aurelius-stated that Jesus was born at Bethlehem ''as you can ascertain also from the registers of the taxing" (Apol. I, 34). Tertullian (160-250) spoke of "the census of Augustus-that most faithful witness of the Lord's nativity, kept in the archives of Rome" (Against Marcion, Bk. 4, 7). When Cyril of Jerusalem (348- 386) asked Julius to assign the true date of Christ's birth "from census documents brought by Titus to Rome," Julius assigned December 25th.

Chrysostom taught that it was on the day of Atonement that Zacharias received the angelic announcement that he would have a son. This would place the conception of John in late September, and so the conception of Christ (which was six months later) in March, leading to a December birth!
According to rabbinical tradition, when the temple was destroyed in 70 A.D., the priestly course of Jehoiarib was serving. If the order of priestly service was unbroken through all those 70 years, it has been calculated that the course of Abijah, to which Zacharias belonged, would have been serving during the first week of October. This would be only slightly later than Chrysostom's position, but one which would still allow for Christ's conception to have been in March and his birth in December.

It should be carefully noted, however, that numerous arguments have been based on when Zacharias served. None are conclusive, since all must assume certain things:
Did the priestly courses start at the beginning of each year, or did they function as a continuous week by week cycle? Was this cycle interrupted during the annual feasts? Did all priests serve then, with the order of courses continuing thereafter? When the Jews added a month, every three years or so (to bring their lunar calendar into alignment with the solar year), how did this affect the timing of the courses? Did they always follow a totally uniform and unchanging policy from generation to generation, or were there variables? Our purpose here is not to argue for one date over another, so we need not get hung up on details.

THE CHRIST FROM BIRTH
There was a sect, the Gnostics, who believed Jesus of Nazareth became the "Christ" at his baptism, that this was when God was "manifested" in the flesh. Eventually, through the influence of Valentinus, January 6 was set aside to honor this event, called "Epiphany" (from the Greek epiphaneia, meaning manifestation).

There were others who began to observe Epiphany on this date also, but they believed (correctly) that Jesus was the Christ from his birth. However, since Jesus' baptism occurred on or near the anniversary of his birth (Lk. 3:23), it seemed more fitting for them to observe January 6th in honor of his birth. This may have even served to counter the false teaching of the Gnostics, emphasizing by this observance, that he had an actual birth as the Christ. If so, setting aside a day to honor his birth did not stem from some ulterior motive. The Armenian Church still observes January 6th.

Was there a feasible basis for January 6th as the date of Christ's birth, and subsequent baptism 30 years later on this date? Was this based on some then-extant records? I don't know. Centuries ago there were disputes as to whether January 6th or December 25th was the correct date, with large groups of people favoring one or the other. But in either case, these two dates only a few days apart are both in winter!
Would winter be a feasible time for the baptism of Jesus? I know of no reason why not at least the winter weather would not have interfered. The very low elevation of the Jordan where Jesus was baptized-near the Dead Sea, which is the lowest spot on earth-enjoys a very mild winter climate.
What about travel for Joseph and Mary from Nazareth to Bethlehem in winter? It is very possible they would have chosen the route through the Jordan Valley. If so, a large percentage of the trip would have been below sea level, thus providing protection from cold weather, even in December. (The Jordan Valley runs between the Sea of Galilee at 689 feet below sea level, to the Dead Sea at 1,306 feet below sea level.)

Would winter have been the time for people like Joseph and Mary to be taxed? It must have been in winter, for only then was field labor suspended! Shepherds in the field at winter, yes. It has been often stated that shepherds in that, part of the world did not abide in the field during the middle of winter, that by October 15th they would have brought their flocks home-thus ruling out December as the time of Christ's birth. But this is far from conclusive. There may have been exceptions. That some shepherds did face cold weather may be seen in Jacob's complaint to Laban, that he had suffered from frost by night (Gen. 31:40).

In his highly regarded and scholarly volumes, The Life and Times of Jesus the Messiah, Alfred Edersheim says about December 25th: "There is no adequate reason for questioning the historical accuracy of this date. The objections generally made rest on grounds, which seem to me historically untenable." Though various writers have quoted Lightfoot about flocks not lying out during the winter months, this was not true of all flocks. He cites ancient Jewish sources to the effect that there are flocks that "remain in the open alike in the hottest days and in the rainy season i.e. all the year round" (The Life and Times of Jesus the Messiah, Bk.2, p.186),

When Luke mentioned shepherds abiding in the field, did he seek to convey what time of year it was, was not or might these words suggest something different: that these shepherds were very poor, living in the field with their flock? They may have been without shelter for their flock or houses for themselves regardless of what season it was.

It is very possible they were this poor. If so, there is a beautiful contrast between the shepherds and the wise men who were, apparently, very rich. Both groups came to worship Jesus while he was an infant, a lovely example of how the message of Christ is for all people, rich or poor.

Anti-Christmas in the Christmas Bible Story???? The Biblical account celebrates the day of Christ's birth but, the story of Christ's birth doesn't end there. The Biblical account also reminds us of the slaughter of the innocent infants, (Mt. 2:16-18) , that suffered as a result of Herod's attempt to destroy Christ AT the DAY of His birth. It's not surprising to see those who zealously work today, to destroy celebration of the day OF Christ's birth.... Herod tried it first, 2,000 years ago.


Comments (Page 2)
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on Jan 05, 2006
Well what do you do with Acts 15 when all the Apostles gathered at the Jerusalem Council


Oh BTW...I didn't put that in to say that the council met on Sunday. Only the results of the council. What they determined the new converts had to do to come into the faith. The Sabbath was never mentioned as the two requirements to be met. Look at 15:24
on Jan 06, 2006
But Israelites didn't come from Isaac but with Jacob.


That's right Doh! I knew that but flurped (this maybe a new word?)

Cuz the Jews, Hebrews, Israelites and Children of Israel are really all interchanged.


This is precisely the problem. Through ignorance of many generations these terms have been used entirely too loosely and stripped alot of its value and true meaning. Same with the words G-D, love, intimacy, etc, in our society today. I used to think the same until I decided to study further in depth the root definition of it. They are interchangeable to you because you were never taught the significance of what they mean. Hebrew - means being called out or crossed over and refers to a person. This is what we become when we turn from our sinful past and seek after G-D. Israel- in the Hebrew text is feminine and refers to a nation under G-D. If you study Genesis surrounding Jacob it bounces back and forth from Jacob and Israel. Remember Jacob struggled in his faith alot. Israel is used when he was right with G-D and Jacob when he wasn't. Many theologians agree with this thought. As for Israelites and Children of Israel (can refer to Jacob's children or the nation under G-D)I used to think these could be interchanged. Words need to be used specifically in their context. Yes I am getting technical because I am passionate for the truth and these general conceptions I find to be EXTREMELY dangerous. Jews- are decendents of Judah or residents of the Kingdom of Judea. This is a select lineage. Unfortunately many people have just adopted the term Jewish (religiously) when really they are Hebrews. This is where and why there is so much confusion. They themselves have lost some of their own identity and don't even realize it. It is my feeble attempt to restore some of the luster that has been lost.

Well what do you do with Acts 15 when all the Apostles gathered at the Jerusalem Council


Okay I spoke out of ignorance previously on this think this was the time when they met on the first day of the week to break bread. So for that I apologize. After studying I was like WHOA I was way off . Sorry about that.

Here are my thoughts on Acts 15.
We see in verse 1 the reason for the Council in the first place. 'And certain men came down from Judaea and taught the brethren, 'saying', Except ye be circumcised after the custom of Moses, ye cannot be saved. (ASV)'

As we have discussed before it is faith in G-D that we receive the grace that saves us through Jesus' death.

Verse 3 tells us that they were refering to the Gentiles and circumsion according to the law. I would also like to add that the Gentiles converted. In verse 9 we see what they converted to. 'and he made no distinction between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith.' the he is refering to G-D in this verse. Peter also clarifies that by faith we are cleansed not through circumsion. This is reiterated in Verse 11. Which I think which loses support for the thought of Two law religion (one for Jews one for Gentiles), since there is no distinction.

Side Note: I would like to point out in Verse 21 'For Moses from generations of old hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath.' No one said it changed. Hmmm I find that interesting.

In verse 24 as you would like to discuss with what has been previously discribed what are they trying to say? 'Forasmuch as we have heard, that certain which went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised, and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment:
(KJV)'
the we is coming from Paul, Peter, and those who met. The law of circumsion doesn't save you. Nor does any other law. I won't refute that. For this is exactly what they are saying too. I never said you must keep the law or you lose out now have I? It still doesn't say that the law is done away with. It only says that the Law does not save you and I 100% agree that only by faith we are saved. But I strive to follow the laws out of love and follow his provisions he has for us. Just like a parent has rules for their children. It is for their own good.

I also find Verse 29 interesting. That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well. This is a reiteration of the dietary laws found in Lev. Why would they reiterate a law that was supposedly done away with?
on Jan 06, 2006
also find Verse 29 interesting. That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well. This is a reiteration of the dietary laws found in Lev. Why would they reiterate a law that was supposedly done away with?


No, No, No. You are looking at this from tainted lenses. Meat was never prohibited in the OT. Just the eating of blood cuz it spoke of the atonement, Lev 17:10-12. They ate meat.

This here in 15:29 speaks of idolotry and sexual immorality. See also v20. We still are held to this. They are told to stop these practices.

See in order to promote peace between Jewish & Gentile believers the Gentiles were asked to abstain from any practice abhorrent to Jewish Christians. That's one of the reasons Paul had Timothy circumcised. Not because it was a requirement. To be more useful. Also Gentiles used idol's temples for banquets, 1 Cor 10:14-22.

1 Cor 8:13 says: If meat makes my brother offend I will eat no flesh while the world stands lest I make my brother offend.

This is called the principle of love voluntarily regulating liberty.

It still doesn't say that the law is done away with.


Ok, I think I got one for you, if you will accept this...boy are you wearing me out!!! Read 2 Cor 3:6-13.

This is saying the NEW is more glorius than the OLD. Look at v11 especially: "For if that which is done away was glorious much more that which remains is glorious."

This is saying that the Law was glorius for its time and purpose, But because it was limited and temporary its glory faded in the light of the blazing glory of Christ. Look also carefully at v13: "And not as Moses which put a veil over his face that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished."

See.... Moses veiled his face so that the Israelites might not see the fading away of the temporary glory reflected in his countenance. The law paled in comparison to the blazing light of Christ.

Does this help? Or are you still unconvinced? This is going to take time.

I'm thinking you've been ingrained by someone or some group to get you here. Read this carefully and meditate on it prayerfully. You are right tho. You just don't see it. Doesn't mean it's not there. Ask God to show you. He will.

On the Jew-Hebrew-Israelite...I find what you said interesting. I'll think about it. Not sure how important it is in the grand scope tho. But as I read scripture I'll keep that in mind and see if I can see anything. But remember in the NT, it only says, Jew and Gentile. There is neither Jew nor Gentile.....all are one in Christ Jesus.
on Jan 09, 2006
No, No, No. You are looking at this from tainted lenses. Meat was never prohibited in the OT. Just the eating of blood cuz it spoke of the atonement, Lev 17:10-12. They ate meat.


After thinking about this one a bit more I am having a little different view of this scripture (Acts 15:28-29). In verse 28 Paul states that he didn't want to lay a greater burden upon them. Let's think about it in this perspective. If you lived in paganism. Sacrificing to idols, commiting fornication, drinking blood, etc. and you come to faith in The One true G-D. Would I a beleiver in the Old Law tell them that they needed to keep the 613 Levitical laws right away? No, they would become overwelmed and discouraged. They should come to do them through love. Just like in our faith we take steps. The first step for them was to do away from the things that detest G-D. Fornication and Sacrifice to Idols. Maybe this gives you a different perspective.

This is saying the NEW is more glorius than the OLD. Look at v11 especially: "For if that which is done away was glorious much more that which remains is glorious."


I will say you have me a bit perplexed here. I have looked at several translations and I am a bit confused on the context of this scripture. Where I am confused is verse 15. 'But even to this day, when Moses is read, the veil is upon their heart (KVJ)' Here is my possible interpretation. JC came to be our sin sacrifice and to make sanctuary in our hearts. When he was crucified the partition (or veil) in the temple was torn. I don't know if this set of scripture is eluding to this or not? I am not convinced that all the law is done away with. In fact I don't think any of the law is done away with just some things have been modified (from external to the heart). I will study more on this set of scripture and see what I find. You have me thinking on this one .

On a side note I am sorry you feel like I am wearing you out. I have tried to deligently answer your comments and scriptural references. Please be encouraged to keep challenging me. I have gained so much from it. I cannot thank you enough. It has been a true blessing.

On the Jew-Hebrew-Israelite...I find what you said interesting. I'll think about it. Not sure how important it is in the grand scope tho. But as I read scripture I'll keep that in mind and see if I can see anything. But remember in the NT, it only says, Jew and Gentile. There is neither Jew nor Gentile.....all are one in Christ Jesus.


It is important to understand the difference. I think through further reading you will come to an understanding of making a difference. Well, it does say Jew or Greek but only technically. When we are of Christ we are grafted in. What are we grafted into? The spiritual nation of Israel is my perspective meaning G-D's people.

I'm thinking you've been ingrained by someone or some group to get you here.


No, this is where I am in my studies. Remember I USED to think that the law was done away with. With out making assumptions (which I see as being very dangerous) I don't see it there. And something this important I need to see it. I don't see it prophecied at all. And throughout Lev. it states a law and says forever or throughout all your generations. I can/will not change this fact on an assumption. Call me stubborn but this is my hang up. Forever to me means FOREVER! There is no until in forever. That would contradict G-D being the same yesterday, today, and forever. Or makes him a G-D that changes. Sorry not a bank I am putting my money in.

Peace and blessings,

Adventure Dude
on Jan 09, 2006
On a side note I am sorry you feel like I am wearing you out


I'm only teasing!!! I think you're keeping me on my toes!!

will say you have me a bit perplexed here. I have looked at several translations and I am a bit confused on the context of this scripture


Ok I didn't get into this completely. This section in 2 Cor 3 especially 11-17 is dealing with them still holding onto the old even tho the old was replaced with the new.

or veil) in the temple was torn. I don't know if this set of scripture is eluding to this or not?


Well only in the sense that they should see more clearly now. Think of the veil as the veil of unbelief (veil is upon their heart). This veil is there as long as they consider the law permanent and do not turn to Christ who takes away the veil (v14). Read Hebrews 3:7-19.

The Hebrews did not grasp fully the glory of the Old Covenant because of their unbelief. As a result the true meaning of the OC was obscure. They didn't quite get it, Heb 3:8, 15, 4:7, Ps 95:7-11.

V10 says: I was grieved with that generation and said they do always err in their heart; and they have not known my ways.

The Children of Israel challanged God's authority over them by their rebellion in the wilderness. Because of this they failed to enter into HIS REST....and they perished in the wilderness. Remember Jesus is our rest. It's all about him not the law. Laws are always made for sinners not the sinless......

Paul is drawing a contrast to the believers of his day to those of the Old Covenant. The Judiazers of his day were trusting in Christ + the Law and were relying on the law for salvation. Without Christ (like you've said the other way around) the OT doesn't make sense. But when a person comes to Christ...he lifts that veil and the spirtual perception is much different, they are no longer impaired, Isa 25:6-8.

When the veil is lifted, we see more clearly the glory of God in His Son, John 1:14. The law was never meant to save, only bring us to Christ.

We are saved the same way today as they were back then. They looked forward to the Cross while we look back. The law does not save. It's our teacher or guardian that brings us to Christ.

Stay cool......dude!!!!
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